I have already addressed the tension between God's sovereignty and man's moral responsibility in both Deut 29 & 30. The conclusion you reach via Deut 29:9 totally obliterates what Moses said in v. 4. Explain to me WHY would Moses say such a thing if the Lord had given to the Jews a mind to understand and eyes to see and ears to hear? Apparently in your universe these things are not necessary for obedience. People imprisoned in their darkness with no spiritual understanding are just as capable of obeying as people with eyes to see and ears to hear, aren't they? So...again, what is the point to v.4? Why is it even in the bible?